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which just says that Alice and Bob always get either the result "+1" or "-1" when they measure along any arbitrary axis. The whole issue here involves the correlations
between the results A and B, in particular, whether the observed correlations
can be explained by something other than a "spooky" non-local interaction
between the two particles. Let us therefore consider the product of A and B.
This product will be +1 whenever Alice and Bob both measure either "+1" or "-1";
the product will be -1 whenever Alice and Bob obtain different results (one gets
"+1" and the other gets "-1"). In the spirit of our discussion above, we will
start by assuming that each particle has pre-existing well-defined properties
which depend only on the shared past history of the two particles. These
properties are encoded in the variable(s)
Just to be absolutely clear, in writing the
measurement results as functions of the (nearby) polarizer direction and
or in words: we assume that the outcome of Alice's experiment does not depend on how Bob (who, remember, is miles away) chooses to orient his polarizer at the last instant before he measures his own particle. This is the locality assumption. We are assuming that the outcome of Alice's experiment will be the same, regardless of what Bob chooses to do. [9] What follows will be a "reductio ad empirical falsehood" of this assumption. OK, back to the story. We are interested in
looking for correlations between A and B, so let's write down the correlation
function of A and B. This is simply the product of A and B (discussed above)
averaged over all possible values of the hidden variables
where
Now, one basic experimental fact that we
must reproduce is the fact that if Alice and Bob measure along the same
direction (i.e., if
That is, if Alice and Bob measure along the
same direction (here called
Now, motivated by our earlier discussion
which showed that a LRHVT could reproduce the QM result only until we considered
three possible measurement axes, let us compare the correlation function for two
different pairs of angles (with one shared angle common to each pair). That is,
consider the quantity
If that's not obvious, one gets from the first
line to the second by inserting a cleverly chosen factor of +1 in the form
Now, the probability distribution for the
where to get the last line we have recognized
that
It is easy to show as we did earlier, that for
certain choices of
There are two somewhat different types of these experiments, depending on whether or not the polarizer angles are held fixed during the time of flight of the particles from source to detector. In the non-delayed-choice version (that is, when the polarizers are simply held fixed) it is simple to imagine how the result of Alice's measurement might depend on the polarizer orientation of Bob's (distant) apparatus, in a fully local way. For example, as in Little's Theory of Elementary Waves, one could imagine that the particles are stimulated from their common source under the influence of waves which had traversed the polarizers on both sides. Hence, the particle traveling toward Alice "knows" about the orientation of Bob's polarizer, because its emission was stimulated under the influence of a wave coming from Bob's polarizer. These non-delayed-choice experiments therefore
do not in any way rule out the LRHVTs that we might have wanted to find. In
terms of the notation of this section, in these experiments, the local hidden
variables
The double delayed choice experiments,
however, do not suffer this shortcoming. These experiments involve a rapid and
random switching of the polarizer settings on each side, during the time of
flight of the particles. [11] Hence, there is no correlation between whatever
initial setting the polarizer might have had when the particle was stimulated,
and the final setting that is actually used to measure the particle's spin. So
now the hidden variables
Given the analysis presented here, the
experimentally-observed violation of Bell's inequalities proves that the
correlations between the results of Alice's and Bob's measurements are too
strong to be explained by anything in the shared past of the two particles
-- that is, the correlations are too strong to be explained by any purely local
theory. In short, the experimental results prove that Alice's choice of which
axis to measure the spin along does indeed affect the state of the distant
particle near Bob. Some kind of super-fast "entanglement" interaction keeps the
two particles in intimate communication even as they fly apart in space, so that
measuring one of them affects the other nearly instantaneously. [12] [9] Those who disagree with the conclusion being advocated in this paper will have to find additional assumptions that might be questioned. It is true that there are additional assumptions on the table here (e.g., that the particles have well-defined properties at all times, and that it is possible for the space-like separated polarizers to undergo independent random rotations), but it is hard to see how any of these could be reasonably called into question. (See footnote [11].) Also, be clear about the logic. The conjunction of several premises leads to a result which is observed to be false. Hence, one of the premises must be false. It is my contention that the assumption of locality is the only one which can reasonably be doubted. [10] Some people have
suggested that there is an error here in the derivation, because it makes no
sense to insert the result of a measurement along
[11] In order to avoid the conclusion that the entangled particles are able to interact super-luminally, some people have suggested that, in fact, the polarizer settings are not random, and that pre-set correlations between the choices of polarizer settings could be used to explain the Bell-violating correlations in a fully local manner. As an objection, this is absolutely true, but it is extremely unlikely that the answer lies here. In principle, one could generate random numbers at each polarizer based on properties of photons streaming to the earth from distant galaxies in different directions in the sky. So then, for the "random" numbers to be, in fact, non-random (i.e., for them to be pre-correlated), one would have to suppose that there is some pre-existing correlation in the light coming from galaxies thousands of light years apart. This would certainly be a bigger surprise than finding that entangled particles can communicate superluminally over kilometer-scale distances. Moreover, one could, instead of using random number generators, let Alice and Bob make real-time free-will choices of which axis to measure. Then, to suppose that the choices are pre-correlated would be tantamount to denying that the experimenters' free choices are in fact free. So this kind of "solution" to the strange apparent non-local interactions is no solution at all. It replaces a surprising new phenomenon with either an inexplicable cosmic conspiracy or an outright denial of the philosophical axiom of volition. Of course, the experiments are not in fact done this way, and it's not impossible that the results could be different if they were, but this is an awfully fishy basket in which to put one's eggs. A second major "loophole" which deserves some comment is the so-called "detector efficiency" loophole. In the derivation above, we assumed that the measurement results represented a fair sample of the distribution over the hidden variables. But in the actual experiments, less than 100% of the particle pairs are detected, so in principle one could get around the non-locality conclusion by asserting that the measured results are a biased sample -- that they don't accurately reflect the full distribution over the hidden variables. (An advocate of this loophole would say that the full distribution actually conforms to the Bell inequality, but the observed sample violates it -- the missing particles, i.e., the ones that weren't detected due to inefficiencies, would make up the difference.) But this is another very fishy basket. Again, it's not impossible that there could be some reason for the observed particles to be a biased sample, but there is certainly no evidence to suggest that (let alone why) it should be so. At best, it is arbitrary to assert that one can get around the non-locality conclusion in this way. Anyway, there is no barrier in principle to increasing the efficiency of these experiments, so this loophole is slowly closing as the years go by. Finally, there's always the "possibility" that the experimenters are all simply lying to us (and/or to themselves!), and the actual experimental results in fact *are* in accordance with Bell's inequalities. This scenario is almost unthinkable, since any clear experimental refutation of the QM prediction would guarantee a Nobel prize to the physicist who discovered it. In short, this is the kind of hypothesis that makes even conspiracy theorists skeptical. For an excellent discussion of the various "loopholes" here (as well as references to the vast literature on this subject) see the article by F. Laloe ("Do we really understand Quantum Mechanics?") in a recent issue of the American Journal of Physics: Vol. 69, pg. 655. [12] This interaction, however, cannot be used by humans to send signals faster than light. Briefly, this is because of the randomness in the measurement results. If one knew the exact values of the "hidden variables" (e.g., the exact particle positions in Bohm's theory) then one could build a faster-than-light telephone. However, in practice, knowledge of the hidden parameters will always be constrained by the uncertainty principle, and such telephones cannot be constructed by this mechanism. Many positivist-leaning people infer from this that the observed non-locality is somehow unreal, or that there is no tension between non-locality and relativity. I regard this position as deplorable, a return to the worst Bohr-style equivocation between epistemology and metaphysics. If Bell's inequalities are indeed violated, then non-locality is a real fact about nature – regardless of its utility to human beings!
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